When the Definition of Intangible is, well, Intangible
September 29th, 2009 by admin | Tags: Intangible, Intangible asset, Intellectual Property, Intercompany, IP, OECD, Services, tax, Tax Treaties, transfer pricing | Posted in OECD |Concerned about high blood pressure? Don’t read the tax press.
In a move sure to raise systolic and diastolic numbers everywhere, Caroline Silberzstein, head of the Transfer Pricing Unit in the OECD Centre for Tax Policy and Administration, went on the record last week at the OECD transfer pricing and treaties conference in Paris supporting the proposition that there was no need to define “intangible” for treaty purposes.
Huh? We’re confused.
In other words, if we don’t have a standard definition of an intangible asset what is to prevent different jurisdictions from asserting their own definition and wreaking havoc on transfer pricing? Nothing. That’s what. Without a definition, tax authorities could argue that a given piece of intellectual property is or is not an asset and therefore (based on the more favorable treatment for the tax authority) deny or force an arm’s length payment. Sounds like open season on taxpayers with significant cross-border transactions involving intangibles.
For example, U.S. law defines “intangible” for purposes of Section 482 – the transfer pricing statute – as “an asset that has substantial value independent of the services of any individual if it derives its value not from its physical attributes but from its intellectual content or other intangible properties.” (Treas. Reg. § 1.482-4(b)).
Other countries differ as to the definition of “intangible.” Case in point, India believes that an “intangible” asset should have human intelligence and uniqueness to be recognized. Given this construct, query then to what extent “distribution rights” would be valued in the U.S. versus India? Clearly the U.S. definition of intangible would include a distribution right as an intangible, as the right has value from its “other intangible properties,” notwithstanding that there may be no employees as yet. India, apparently, would reach an inapposite conclusion in the absence of employees. Apparently the ability to distribute vis-à-vis current employees is paramount from an Indian point of view. Given the dichotomy of views as to what constitutes an “intangible” for transfer pricing purposes, it will be difficult at best for tax authorities to agree on what an arm’s length result should be in the absence of a definitional framework as to what constitutes an “intangible” asset for treaty purposes.
This should be a clarion call for the OECD and its member states to put forth a common definition of “intangible” for treaty purposes or if not a definition, at least agree on the indicia of an “intangible” so that taxpayers and tax authorities alike will have a framework to foster negotiation. Moreover, in light of convergence of financial reporting standards there will likely be differences between what is reported for financial accounting purposes, statutory accounting purposes (the starting point for the tax return) and tax reporting in the U.S. versus non-U.S. jurisdictions. Thus leading to a further mudding of the waters as to intangibles that may or may not be reported for financial accounting purposes, but may nevertheless exist for tax purposes.
Absent a definition or at least an agreement as to the indicia of intangible asset(s) for treaty purposes, we will be left with the so-called Pornography Standard: You’ll know it when you see it. The OECD can and should do better.